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FINAL TEST

Salon Fundamentals

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Question 1 of 100

What term is used to describe how energy contained in food is measured? 

A

Protein content

B

Fat content

C

Calories

D

Degrees

Question 2 of 100

What is the name of the science that looks at how you do your work and what body movements, tools and equipment benefit you and your client's health and comfort. 

A

Personal hygiene

B

Public hygiene

C

Ergonomics

D

Economics

Question 3 of 100

All of the following recommendations can help prevent neck and back strain EXCEPT:

A

Working with the back straight

B

Reaching overhead for supplies

C

Using free-standing shampoo bowls

D

Adjusting the height of the client's chair

Question 4 of 100

A communicable disease refers to a disease that is easily:

A

Vaccinated

B

Immunized

C

Not spread from one person to another

D

Spread from one person to another

Question 5 of 100

Which of the following is NOT a type of bacteria? 

A

Bacilli

B

Spirilla

C

Parasite

D

Streptococci

Question 6 of 100

The ability to destroy infectious agents that enter the body is:

A

Immunity

B

Infection control

C

Superiority

D

Acquired immunodeficiency

Question 7 of 100

Spreading infection in a salon can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Unclean hands and implements

B

Coughing or sneezing

C

Open sores

D

Clean hands and implements

Question 8 of 100

The process referred to as "double-bagging" is performed when a(n):

A

Blood spill occurs

B

MSDS is consulted

C

Calibration occurs

D

Antiseptic is used

Question 9 of 100

All of the following are steps to be followed if a victim is chocking EXCEPT:

A

Determine if victim can speak

B

Lay victim on his/her back

C

Wrap arms around chest

D

Perform abdominal thrust

Question 10 of 100

Muscles affected by massage are generally manipulated from the:

A

Origin to insertion

B

Insertion to origin

C

Belly to insertion

D

Insertion to belly

Question 11 of 100

What system is composed to sensory and motor nerves that extend from the spinal cord and brain to other parts of the body? 

A

Peripheral nervous system

B

Autonomic nervous system

C

Zygomatic nervous system

D

Cerebrum

Question 12 of 100

The cranial nerve responsible for transmitting facial sensations to the brain is the:

A

Trifacial

B

Facial

C

Radial

D

Ulnar

Question 13 of 100

Material that the best transports electricity is called a(n):

A

Insulator

B

Conductor

C

Prism

D

Watt

Question 14 of 100

An Underwriters Laboratory (UL) designation indicates:

A

The appliance has been certified to operate safely under the conditions specified

B

It is free from all mechanical defects

C

The manufacturer's warranty is doubled

D

It operates with less power the specified on the label

Question 15 of 100

Fires in electrical circuits can occur if: 

A

The circuit is open

B

There is a closed path, called a circuit

C

The circuit breaker is manually turned to the off position

D

Too many appliances use the same wall socket and overload the circuit

Question 16 of 100

When performing an electrotherapy procedure, what conductor is used to bring the current from the appliance to the client's skin? 

A

Watt

B

Resistor

C

Wall plate

D

Electrode

Question 17 of 100

The average distance you should place an infrared lamp during a facial is about:

A

10"

B

18"

C

24"

D

30"

Question 18 of 100

Which bond is very weak individually and can be broken by heat or water, but makes up about 35% of the hair's strength because of the large numbers? 

A

Van der Waal's

B

Disulfide

C

Peptide

D

Hydrogen

Question 19 of 100

The pH measurement scale indicates whether a substance is:

A

A liquid, solid or gas

B

Organic or inorganic

C

Young or old

D

Acidic, neutral or alkaline

Question 20 of 100

What is usually the first ingredient listed on the most shampoos?

A

Hydrogen

B

Oxygen

C

Water

D

Protein

Question 21 of 100

A soft perm curl loosens the texture of tightly curled hair by: 

A

Using a thioglycolate-based product

B

Following a thioglycolic relaxer with a sodium hydroxide relaxer

C

Using a high volume developer

D

Using a low volume developer

Question 22 of 100

Which of the following color categories uses a low volume peroxide to develop the color molecules? 

A

Long lasting semi-permanent

B

Permanent

C

Semi-permanent

D

Temporary

Question 23 of 100

Worker's Compensation Insurance is needed to protect the: 

A

Salon

B

Customers

C

Inventory

D

Employee

Question 24 of 100

Who must apply for a state sales tax permit before collecting taxes on products or services sold?

A

Employee

B

Customer

C

Lawyer

D

Salon owner

Question 25 of 100

It is wise to keep all records of your daily sales and services for how long?

A

2 to 4 years

B

5 to 7 years

C

10 to 12 years

D

14 to 16 years

Question 26 of 100

Which of these factors does NOT affect hair growth?

A

Frequent exercise

B

disease

C

Lack of vitamins

D

Medication

Question 27 of 100

People with lighter colored hair have melanin in the: 

A

Cuticle only

B

Cortex only

C

Cuticle and cortex

D

Medulla only

Question 28 of 100

The degree of coarseness or fineness of the hair fiber is referred as: 

A

Density

B

Porosity

C

Viscosity

D

Texture

Question 29 of 100

Normal dry hair is capable of being stretched to what fraction of its length? 

A

One-tenth

B

One-fifth

C

One-half

D

Three-fourths

Question 30 of 100

What type of rinse is used after a color  service to prevent the color from fading? 

A

Creme

B

Color

C

Medicated

D

Acid-balanced

Question 31 of 100

Avoid giving a scalp massage prior to all of the following services EXCEPT:

A

Relaxing healthy hair

B

Coloring healthy hair

C

Perming healthy hair

D

Shampooing healthy hair

Question 32 of 100

A dominant, protruding forehead and chin with a small nose are characteristics of a: 

A

Straight profile

B

Concave profile

C

Convex profile

D

Short profile

Question 33 of 100

Which of the following statements describes diagonal lines used in design?

A

Soften angular facial shapes

B

Are at a right angle to the horizon

C

Lead the eye to a focal area

D

Add weight or bulk when cut into a shape

Question 34 of 100

What is meant by unactivated texture?

A

A smooth texture

B

A rough texture

C

When the ends of the hair strands are showing

D

A wet look

Question 35 of 100

All of the following descriptions are true about the uniformly layered form EXCEPT: 

A

Circular shape

B

Activated texture

C

Same length throughout

D

Rectangular or oval shape

Question 36 of 100

What part on a pair of shears controls the movable or action blade?

A

Finger grip

B

Thumb grip

C

Wrist action

D

Tension screw

Question 37 of 100

All of the following statement are true texturizing EXCEPT: 

A

Reduces bulk

B

Increasing bulk

C

Creates visual texture

D

Involves cutting shorter lengths within the form

Question 38 of 100

Generally, medium texture hair should be texturized how far away from them scalp?

A

1/2"

B

1"

C

1 1/2"

D

2"

Question 39 of 100

When two oblongs alternate they create a(n):

A

"C"-shaped movement

B

"S"-shaped movement

C

Figure eight

D

"O"-shaped movement

Question 40 of 100

The base control used within a hairstyle affects the amount of closeness (flatness) in the hairstyle or the amount of lift which is also referred as: 

A

Elevation

B

Size of the base

C

Volume

D

Bulk

Question 41 of 100

An on-base tool placement will result in the strongest base strength and: 

A

The most volume

B

The longest curl

C

The smallest diameter

D

The prettiest texture

Question 42 of 100

What type of hair can be resistant to hair pressing?

A

Fine

B

Medium

C

Coarse, tightly curled

D

Thin

Question 43 of 100

All of the following factors are true when using a thermal iron on tinted, white or very fine hair EXCEPT:

A

A lower iron temperature I used

B

Highest iron temperature is used

C

Hot iron is closed lightly on a damp towel before curling

D

Iron is tested on hair prior to service to prevent scorching

Question 44 of 100

Flat pincurls are used to achieve:

A

Fullness

B

Fingerwaves

C

Closeness

D

Volume

Question 45 of 100

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A

Wigs made with human hair need to be cleaned more often than those made with synthetic fibers

B

A razor should not be used on synthetic wigs

C

You should not put a synthetic wig under a dryer

D

Coloring procedures are effective on synthetic wigs

Question 46 of 100

Hair additions are an appropriate choice for clients who want to add length, density, texture and/or: 

A

Short hair

B

Cascade

C

Wiglet

D

Color

Question 47 of 100

The chemical phase of perms involves all of the following EXCEPT:  

A

Applying neutralizer

B

Applying perm solution

C

Wrapping hair around the perm tool

D

Rinsing the perm solution from the hair

Question 48 of 100

Water left in the end papers after rinsing the perm solution will:

A

Cause severe breakage

B

Create a longer-lasting curl

C

Give the hair more luster

D

Dilute the neutralizer and weaken the curl formation

Question 49 of 100

What item determines the size and shape of the new curl configuration? 

A

Perm solution

B

Neutralizing solution

C

Hair color

D

Perm rod

Question 50 of 100

All of the following are true statements regarding infection control and safety procedures when performing a perm service EXCEPT: 

A

May proceed with perm is abrasions are present

B

Avoid perming damaged hair that shows breakage

C

Protect client's clothing with proper draping

D

Never perm hair that has been treated with sodium hydroxide or no-lye relaxer

Question 51 of 100

Weak or limp curls can be caused by:

A

Underprocessing

B

Overprocessing

C

Using rods that are too small

D

Excessive rinsing

Question 52 of 100

What condition determines the processing time and proper relaxer strength to use?

A

The hair's texture, elasticity, porosity

B

Natural hair color

C

The length of the hair

D

Only the elasticity of the hair

Question 53 of 100

During a chemical relaxer application, the porosity of the hair affects the:

A

Amount of rinsing needed

B

Processing time

C

Tools used

D

Type of relaxer used

Question 54 of 100

Virgin thio relaxers may be applied after all of the following EXCEPT:

A

A light shampoo

B

Vigorous shampoo

C

An analysis of the hair and scalp

D

A strand test and an elasticity test

Question 55 of 100

What is the difference between a color level of 1 and a color level of 10?

A

Level 1 is lighter than level 10

B

Level 1 is darker than level 10

C

Level 1 contains more primary colors thank level 10

D

Level 1 contains more blue pigment than level 10

Question 56 of 100

Developers in demi-permanent colors contain: 

A

Little or no ammonia

B

A 6% volume of peroxide

C

Enough ammonia to lighten the hair

D

Mostly ammonia

Question 57 of 100

A high volume of hydrogen peroxide:

A

Will create more pigment lift

B

Would be a 10 volume

C

Would be a 3% solution

D

Will lessen the amount of pigment lifted

Question 58 of 100

On-the-scale lighteners have a pH of:

A

2.5 to 3.5

B

4.0 to 5.5

C

6.5 to 7.5

D

About 9.0

Question 59 of 100

Overlapping lighteners during a retouch service can:

A

Ensure proper coverage

B

Result in uniform coverage

C

Result in breakage

D

Help speed up the procedure time

Question 60 of 100

If redness and swelling are found around the test area when performing a predisposition test, which of the following steps should NOT be taken? 

A

Stop the service

B

Proceed with the service

C

Result in breakage

D

Help speed up the procedure time

Question 61 of 100

What term describes the deep pocket-like are that holds the root and matrix of the nail? 

A

Nail groove

B

Mantle

C

Lunula

D

Onyx

Question 62 of 100

What term describes the whitened, half-moon shaped area at the base of the nail?

A

Matrix

B

Eponychium

C

Lunula

D

Nail root

Question 63 of 100

The study of the structure and growth of nails is called: 

A

Etiology

B

Neurology

C

Onychology

D

Onychosis

Question 64 of 100

The nail is made from hardened protein called: 

A

Keratin

B

Onyx

C

Lunula

D

Glucose

Question 65 of 100

Damage to which portion of the nail could cause permanent distortions? 

A

Perionychium

B

Matrix of nail bed

C

Free edge

D

Hyponychium

Question 66 of 100

Under normal conditions, growth of new nail plate takes approximately:

A

2 weeks

B

4 to 6 months

C

1 year

D

2 years

Question 67 of 100

Which of the following conditions does NOT indicate a decreasing rate of nail growth?

A

Aging

B

Winter

C

Summer

D

Poor nutrition

Question 68 of 100

What condition appears as rings containing tiny blisters, dark pink to reddish in color, and can be confused with eczema or contact dermatitis? 

A

Paronychia

B

Tinea manus

C

Onychia

D

Onychoptosis

Question 69 of 100

Poor circulation can cause a disorder called:

A

Onychia

B

Corrugations

C

Blue nails

D

Furrows

Question 70 of 100

Which of the following nail diseases is NOT caused by fungus?

A

Tinea pedis

B

Onychomycosis

C

Tinea manus

D

Onychatrophia

Question 71 of 100

The disorder in which the nail grows into the edge of the nail groove causing ingrown nails is called:

A

Onychocryptosis

B

Onchogryposis

C

Onychauxis

D

Leuconychia

Question 72 of 100

What term refers to the thickening of the nail plate or an abnormal outgrown of the nail?

A

Tinea manus

B

Onychia

C

Onychauxis

D

Pterygium

Question 73 of 100

What sign can indicate serious problems in the nail bed or nail plate?

A

Hangnails

B

Leuconychia

C

Discoloration

D

Onychophagy

Question 74 of 100

Nail service implements must be disinfected or discarded:

A

Once every hour

B

After every service

C

At closing time

D

On a weekly basis

Question 75 of 100

In which direction should a nail shaped to avoid splitting?

A

From top to bottom

B

From the bottom to the top

C

From the outer edge toward the center

D

From the center toward the outer edge

Question 76 of 100

A hot oil or creme manicure is helpful for all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

A

Dry, aging hands

B

ingrown toenails

C

Brittle nails

D

Ridged nails

Question 77 of 100

How often is a fill-in service for artificial nails required?

A

Every 2 weeks

B

Every 2 months

C

Every 6 months

D

Once a year

Question 78 of 100

Functions of the skin include regulation of body temperature and: 

A

Reproduction

B

Protection

C

Digestion

D

Circulation

Question 79 of 100

Which system of the body is made up of the skin and its layers?

A

Excretory

B

Respiratory

C

Sensation

D

Integumentary

Question 80 of 100

Which is the technical name for the study of the skin, including its structure, functions, diseases, and treatments?

A

Etiology

B

Anatomy

C

Pathology

D

Dermatology

Question 81 of 100

The outer protective layer of the skin is known as the:

A

Dermis

B

Adipose

C

Epidermis

D

Corium

Question 82 of 100

Which of the following skin layers does NOT contain blood vessels?

A

Cutis

B

Dermis

C

Corium

D

Epidermis

Question 83 of 100

In which layer do the cells become irregularly shaped and have a spiny appearance?

A

Stratum granulosum

B

Stratum corneum

C

Stratum lucidum

D

Stratum spinosum

Question 84 of 100

The Stratum lucidum layer is found only on the: 

A

Soles of the feet and palms of the hands

B

Tops of hands

C

Scalp

D

Elbows

Question 85 of 100

The sebaceous glands produce which of the following substances? 

A

Perspiration

B

Melanin

C

Sebum (oil)

D

dandruff

Question 86 of 100

The sudoriferous glands perform all the following functions EXCEPT:

A

Produce oil

B

Help regulate body temperature

C

Excrete waste

D

Help to maintain the proper pH of the skin

Question 87 of 100

Most skin problems are caused by:

A

Sudoriferous glands

B

Eccrine glands

C

Sebaceous glands

D

Arrector pili muscles

Question 88 of 100

What tans the skin to help protect it from burning rays of the sun?

A

Sebum

B

The acid mantle

C

Melanin

D

The subcutaneous layer

Question 89 of 100

Chronic is the term used to identify conditions that are:

A

Brief and severe

B

Frequent and habitual

C

Influenced by weather

D

Visible

Question 90 of 100

What is the technical term for the study of the cause of disease?

A

Etiology

B

Pathology

C

Anatomy

D

Dermatology

Question 91 of 100

An example of a subjective symptom would be:

A

Itching

B

Redness

C

Swelling

D

Discharge

Question 92 of 100

In seborrhea, the appearance of the skin is: 

A

Dry and dull

B

Oily and shiny

C

Smooth and pink

D

Red and blotchy

Question 93 of 100

A massage can provide all of the following results EXCEPT:

A

Increase blood circulation to the skin

B

Stimulate glandular activity

C

Improve the texture of the skin

D

Weaken muscle tissue

Question 94 of 100

The gentle massage movement that often begins and ends a massage treatment is called:

A

Petrissage

B

Effleurage

C

Tapotement

D

Vibration

Question 95 of 100

Areas of the skin that are diseased, broken, bruised or scraped:

A

Should not be massaged

B

Require tapotement movements

C

Require vibration

D

Require petrissage movements

Question 96 of 100

Which assists in cleaning the skin and returning normal-to-dry skin to a normal pH?

A

Skin astringents

B

Oily skin masks

C

Dry skin masks

D

Toners or fresheners

Question 97 of 100

Which of the following is NOT an infection control and safety guideline for performing hair removal services?

A

Use wax over moles, warts, irritated or abraded scalp

B

Always test the temperature of heated wax before applying

C

Cleanse the skin prior to treatment

D

Use cold compresses, icepacks or aloe vera to smooth irritated skin

Question 98 of 100

What facial feature would accompany a heart-shaped face?

A

Narrow forehead

B

Narrow jawline

C

Wide jawline

D

Straight forehead

Question 99 of 100

What face shape is characterized by a narrow forehead and jaw area with predominant width in the cheekbone area?

A

Square

B

Round

C

Oval

D

Diamond

Question 100 of 100

To minimize wide-set eyes and make them appear closer, it is best to:

A

Shorten the outside eyebrow line on both sides

B

Make the eyebrow line straight

C

Extend the eyebrow line to the inside corner of the eye

D

Arch the ends of the eyebrow

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